QUESTIONS/ANSWERS ON THEOLOGY
QUESTION #287 -- What is
fundamentalism? A certain well
known fundamentalist team was
refused admittance to all the
churches in town except the
holiness church. Yet the team
teaches anti-holiness doctrines
and would have been excluded
from the holiness church at any
other time. Is not the doctrine
of holiness one of the
fundamentals?
ANSWER #287 -- Certain good
publicity agents took advantage
of the term fundamental, a good
word of general import, and gave
it a factional meaning. In the
list of generally accepted
doctrines of the Christian
Church they injected their own
pet notions, making one plank in
the platform a committal to the
false and dangerous heresy of
Augustinian and Calvinistic
interpretation of unconditional
and unavoidable perseverance on
the part of the regenerated.
This old heresy they dubbed with
the new title "Eternal
Security." But a list of
"fundamentals" containing this
erroneous and factional
commitment would bar out James
Arminius, John Wesley, Dr.
Bresee, and, I think, the
Apostle Paul. It is really a
great pity that men committed to
the task of defending the
historic faith against the
inroads of other ancient
heresies which came out under
the new name "Modernism" should
adopt a policy that is so
reprehensible and of such
doubtful morality. But since
they elected to do that, they
were consistent in that they did
not forsake their old heretical
notions regarding the nature and
incurableness of sin. It would
be a pity for orthodox holiness
teachers to be stained with a
method of publicity which is
open to such just criticism.
Certainly, holiness is one of
the fundamental doctrines of the
Bible and of the Church. It is
so fundamental that the Bible
says without holiness no man
shall see the Lord (Hebrews
12:14).
* * *
QUESTION #288 -- In the Herald
of Holiness for April 20, Dr.
Corlett mentioned verbal and
plenary inspiration of the
Scriptures. Please explain more
fully the distinction.
ANSWER #288 -- These two terms
do not stand on a common plane
and comparison is difficult.
Plenary means full, complete,
and verbal means expressed in
words, oral, literal. Thus
plenary has reference to the
extent and verbal to the method
of inspiration. And as related
to the Scriptures, verbal is
included in plenary, although
plenary extends to other methods
also. To illustrate: one who
believes in the plenary
inspiration of the Scriptures
believes that "All scripture is
God-breathed," as Paul said
literally in 2 Timothy 3:16,
although he may not be ready to
say whether this was done by the
express inspiration of every
word or whether it was by means
of thought, allowing some scope
for the personality of the holy
man who was the human author.
But one who believes in the
verbal inspiration believes also
that "All scripture is
God-breathed," and that the
method employed by the Holy
Spirit was that of taking
complete charge of the mind and
hand of the human author and
dictating every word with no
allowance for any variation
through the channel of human
agency.
* * *
QUESTION #289 -- A woman here is
puzzled. She says she was
converted before she was born
again. Isn't conversion and
being born again the same thing?
ANSWER #289 -- If one is
speaking technically, then of
course conversion is a human act
and the new birth is a divine
act, and conversion does precede
the new birth or regeneration.
But in this sense conversion is
just the equivalent of
repentance. In ordinary language
conversion and the new birth are
the same thing. I speak of the
time when I was converted,
meaning the time when God
converted me by regenerating my
heart, rather than of the time
(which was completed just at the
moment when God touched my
heart) when I converted myself
by repenting and turning to God.
I, personally, practically
always use the terms conversion
and the new birth as synonyms.
* * *
QUESTION #290 -- Please give the
original of "which taketh away
the sin of the world" (John
1:29); and "to put away sin by
the sacrifice of himself'
(Hebrews 9:26).
ANSWER #290 -- The word for sin
is the same in both cases. It is
hamartia which originally meant
the missing of a mark, and which
applied to moral things
doubtless implies the missing of
the true end of life. It is the
general word for sin in the New
Testament, and means both the
act of sinning and the result,
the sin itself. Or, speaking a
little more discriminately, it
includes both actual and inbred
sm. But the word for "taketh
away" in John is airoo which is
translated to raise or lift up
(Mark 16:18; John 11:41); to
bear or carry (Matthew 4:6; Luke
9:23); to bear away or carry off
in general (Matthew 21:21; John
19:31); to remove by death (John
17:15; Matthew 24: 39); as well
as describing the redeeming work
of Christ (John 1:29 and I John
3:5). On the other hand the word
in Hebrews 9:26 is athetasis and
appears only one other time in
the New Testament, in Hebrews
7:18 where it is translated
"disannulling" in both the
Authorized and Revised Versions,
although I think most literal
translations give it "a putting
away." I would say that the
general idea in John 1:29 and
Hebrews 9:26 is the same, only
in John the statement is simply
that Jesus is the Lamb of God to
bear away the sin of the world,
without designating in just what
manner He bears it away. While
the word in Hebrews emphasizes
that He bears it away by
nullifying it and robbing it of
its power by substituting
Himself for the victim which it
has the right to claim. But in
both cases there is an actual
putting away of sin, and the
texts are both consistent only
with the fullest forgiveness and
the most far reaching cleansing.
There is no room for a sinning
religion or for suppression or
counteraction in either one of
them.
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